Reposting my comment:

Imagine Stalin was replaced by a neoliberal politician with a proven track record of doing evil shit. Imagine the USSR was instead a settler-colonial genocide state. Imagine this state still takes up the geographical and historical spot the USSR does, somehow. Imagine everything else is the same, somehow. Now with these hypotheticals, would the holodomor not appear as a deliberate act of genocide? (By the way, the causes for the famine that wasn’t just located to Ukraine, but we pretend it is for some reason, are still the same. That means the holodomor was still a result of landowning farmers burning their stock of food rather than let it be redistributed.)