Does contemporary Marxism still consider feudalism to be a unified mode of production? I’ve heard some historians say that there was never such a thing as indivisble feudalism, rather that there were different modes sort of interacting during this time which taken as a whole compose our conception and stereotypes of what feudalism means.
Could China during that time be considered feudal, or is it specifically a western European thing?
He and Guglielmo Carchedi wrote a book called Capitalism in the 21st Century: Through the Prism of Value. I’m about halfway through definitely worth reading imo. It’s more of a general view of capitalism but it reads similar to his blogs.