Yes, I guess what I’m asking is are we pretending that this “conditioning” isn’t a real thing? I also read recently (sorry if this is wrong) that there was a study done on arousal of breasts between societies where they are covered up vs where they are not. It found the level of arousal remained consistent.
Why wouldn't having to deal with that arousal be the problem and responsibility of the aroused instead of, by default and preemtively, limiting the rights of any prospective and involuntary "arousee" in existence?
Remember this whole discussion is about discrimination. So what you're asking is "In contexts where full male body nudity is arbitrarily deemed acceptable, why wouldn't full female body nudity be acceptable as well?"
And the answer, of course, is that there's no reason to make a distinction, is there?