Did you and the people upvoting your comment read the article? The article is about Israel destroying an illegal Jewish outpost that was built on Palestinian land. So it seems like Israel does care in this case and helped Palestinians against criminal Jews. Your comment doesn’t make any sense in this context.
Do not downplay the term Apartheid like this. The conflict between Israel and Palestine and the clear mistreatment of civilians is bad enough without lying. About 1,6 million Palestinians are Israeli citizens, they number about 20% of the total population and live and work anywhere and anything in Israel without segregation. Some thousands of them volunteered for the Israeli army and are fighting against Hamas. None of that would be possible in an Apartheid state.
War is bad enough; there is no need to label everything with misused terms like „Apartheid“, „holocaust“, „genocide“.
Thank you! The English wikipedia article is very different to my own native language's one (German). I didn't know that some people call the blockade of Gaza by Israel and Egypt an occupation. These nuances don't translate well into my language where the word for occupation implies actually occupying something ("boots on the ground").
The blockade was the consequence of their neighbour being taken over by a terrorist organization. Both Israel and Egypt tried to loosen the blockade multiple times in the last decade. But any relaxation was answered with violence. I don't know how anyone should or could possibly proceed in this setting. All I know is that I do sympathize with the civilians on both sides that are suffering because of it, even if one side elected literal terrorists as their leaders and the other side elected a vengeful right-winger.
hint: It's the Israeli occupation of Palestine. And yes, that includes Gaza, as much as Israel would like you to believe otherwise
The aggressive settlement politics of Israel in Palestine is sad enough, but would you care to elaborate on the second part? That seems to be a pretty bold claim, considering that Gaza has been militarily occupied by Hamas since the civil war of 2007 and is still de facto not in the control of either Palestine or Israel. I don’t understand how that could be the case if your claim was true.
According to Hamas doctrine Israel does „occupy“ them by simply existing where Hamas would like to create their caliphate (i.e. Jerusalem). So that might be where the confusion is coming from.
I like this change. Quality over quantity.