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Riverside

@ Riverside @reddthat.com

Posts
3
Comments
401
Joined
1 mo. ago

  • Obviously Britain did the most

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  • Notice my comment specifically mentioning post-1955. Poland was made to pay reparations to the USSR because of the lives lost saving Poland, which is debatable, this was stopped after the mid 50s

  • Obviously Britain did the most

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  • Yes, because of Yank propaganda. I don't see how they're anything remotely as bad as Vietnam or Korea, look at the figures of deaths. It's just that Europeans are racist as fuck and don't care about deaths of Asians, and American propaganda was much more pervasive.

  • Obviously Britain did the most

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  • Gracias, compa <3

  • Obviously Britain did the most

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  • So russia invades poland to "protect" them from the nazi

    No. As made explicit on my previous comment, the Soviets invade Poland to put extra distance between themselves and the Nazis, since there are essentially no natural defensive positions in the Great European Plain. You can read the arguments of Chamberlain and Churchill that I included in my comment.

    I don't see why you bring up the modern Russian Federation, though, what kind of link are you trying to make?

  • Obviously Britain did the most

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  • 25 million Soviets died during the war. Is the 8.7 just soldiers?

  • Obviously Britain did the most

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  • I already provided an extensive comment regarding the widely misconstrued Molotov-Ribbentrop in this comment section, you should check it out.

    Thanks for agreeing with my point: yes, it was the Soviets that took the brunt of the war and did the most to destroy Nazism. Lend lease helped, but the main factor in the destruction of Nazism was the Soviet interwar industrialization push since 1929's first 5-year plan.

  • Obviously Britain did the most

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  • it suffered from its close association to the many failures of the Soviet Union (such as its foreign policy flip-flops and numerous human right violations)

    By that logic, all modern pro-NATO parties in the EU should have disappeared in the 1950s. You say the USSR has policy flip flops, but have you looked at the USA's foreign policy? As for human rights violations, I don't really know what you're talking about regarding the French Communist Party "natural political decline". Since Stalin's death in the 1950s the gulags were closed, famines had disappeared, and the USSR was an overwhelmingly peaceful nation that internationally provided help to emancipatory anti-colonial projects such as those of Cuba or Vietnam, while the US bombed the fuck out of them. Also, did you just say "nah" to the source I brought and simply disregarded it?

  • Obviously Britain did the most

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  • And what should the alternative be? Because the other only possible alternative was allowing the Nazis full control of those lands. For comparison, the Katyn massacre in Poland likely carried out by the Soviets during occupation consists of figures numbered in the tens of thousands, and Nazi extermination in Poland killed several millions. What's the desired occupation?

  • Obviously Britain did the most

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  • while raping the inhabitants

    And that's where we stop arguing. There is no evidence of higher rates of sexual assault by Soviet troops than by any other, and the whole "rapist hordes" stems from Nazi wartime propaganda and has been picked up by racists like you. You stop being able to defend "polish ownership" over majority Lithuanian, Belarusian and Ukrainian territories by ethnicity when confronted with evidence, and resort to racist Nazi propaganda of "rapist hordes".

  • Obviously Britain did the most

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  • You're not answering my question:

    Britain got 3 times as much aid from Lend-Lease than the USSR. If Lend-Lease is the main factor behind the Soviets defeating the Nazis (as proven by Nazis suffering 80% of their dead soldiers in the Eastern Front), why didn't Britain kill many more Nazis?

  • Hasan Piker banned from Twitch for calling ICE supporters "rabid ultra-Zionist pigs'

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  • Obviously Britain did the most

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  • Lend-lease, it's USA policy.

    Answer my question: if lend-lease won the war, if Britain received $30bn and the USSR received $11bn, why didn't Britain win the war?

  • Obviously Britain did the most

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  • I provided you sources with NUMERICAL DATA contradicting your statements directly. Until you prove otherwise with evidence, don't continue this conversation. This is a community about history, not vibes-based analysis.

  • Obviously Britain did the most

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  • I did recognize that lend-lease was very significant. However, Britain got 3 times as much aid from Lend-Lease and they weren't the ones who won the war.

  • Obviously Britain did the most

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  • every factory that could be disassembled was systematically sent to Russia

    Then why was GDP per capita higher in Estonia and Czechoslovakia higher than in the USSR? Why did Romania go from having 40% of industrial workers to 20% after the 1990s? What's your source for this?

    ressources were systematically sent to Russia

    I already proved, with sources, that it was backwards. The net material balances were extractive from the USSR which gave resources like metals, gas and oil at subsidized prices to the COMECON countries. Think about it for just one second: the USSR does not need resources, it's the largest country in the world, a fossil fuel exporter, and has immense material wealth from the extensive mining complexes in the Urals. Why would the USSR need raw materials from tiny countries in its orbit? But again, if you don't believe me, you're free to read about it. This is a history community, not a "let's make up reality without sources" community. I provided you sources.

  • Obviously Britain did the most

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  • For its many mistakes, the USSR didn't pillage the resources of any country, the only argument you could make in this direction are postwar reparations against Nazi countries such as Hungary. After 1955 especially, the trade policy inside the COMECON was one of the USSR supplying raw goods at subsidized prices in exchange for industrially manufactured goods. This policy is detailed with numbers in Robert C. Allen's "Farm to Factory" and Albert Szymanski's "Human Rights in the Soviet Union". What's your data source for claiming the Soviet Union pillaged any country?

  • Obviously Britain did the most

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  • Poland had invaded these territories in the Russian Civil War and annexed them, as you see on one of the maps I provided those territories had ethnic majorities of Belarusian, Ukrainian and Lithuanian peoples at the time, what makes you think they were Polish territories?

  • Obviously Britain did the most

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  • The fact that the Soviets didn't manufacture trucks is because they got them from the USA, not backwards. A truck is significantly cheaper to manufacture than a tank.

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  • we sent them

    The US sent a total of about 7 thousand tanks to the USSR, but the T-34 Soviet tank saw about 80k units built in total, so while lend lease was very significant, the vast majority of war material of the Soviets was of Soviet origin.